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podcast 75 – Justin Martyr’s Dialogue with Trypho – Part 2

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Jesus between Peter and Paul, 4th c.When it came to christology, what did Justin Martyr consider essential, as in, you’re not a Christian unless you believe it? The answers may surprise you. (Hint.)

In this episode we explore the christology of Justin’s Dialogue with Trypho. Is Jesus, for Justin, God himself? One third of a triune God? “Fully divine?” Eternal?

I also critically interact with some comments on Justin by Dr. Paula Fredriksen, who says that for Justin, as for Marcion and Valentinus, “the god of the Bible, the god of the Jews, was not the High God.” I argue against this that for Justin, the pre-human Jesus isn’t the god of the Jews, though he is the “god” seen and heard by ancient Jews.

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11 thoughts on “podcast 75 – Justin Martyr’s Dialogue with Trypho – Part 2”

  1. I am so very glad I found this. I am a huge fan of Fredriksen’s, and to be honest about my own biases, I wanted what she has said about Justin’s thought to be true since I wanted to throw a wrench into the common idea of strict, plain, simple orthodoxy (another story for another time). I have tried to confirm this reading since earlier this year in my own research, and I am now in a class at Emory University on Earliest Christian Belief about the Holy Spirit, reading tons of primary sources, including Justin Martyr in whom I am specializing. And I can now say that you are absolutely right in your critiques of Fredriksen’s argument. Lumping him in with Valentinus and Marcion just doesn’t work. Wonderful job.

  2. Dale, thanks for your interesting analysis of Justin’s Christology. I think you’ve made a strong case that he didn’t hold a fully developed Chalcedonian (or even Nicene) Christology. However, I’ve got a few criticisms of the section from 4:30 to 11:00 about the ‘man of men’ Christology passage (Dialogue 48.2-4).

    1. You (or your sources) describe Justin’s ‘concession’ that Jesus could have been Christ even if a man of men as based perhaps on doubts about his own Christology. I would argue that, instead, Justin’s ‘concession’ is not an expression of doubt but is part of a divide-and-conquer rhetorical strategy. He first seeks to show that Jesus is the Christ independent of questions of virgin birth and pre-existence. If he can get Trypho/the reader to at least admit this much, he will have an easier time persuading them of the virgin birth and pre-existence.
    2. In this passage Justin assumes virgin birth and pre-existence to be inextricably linked, and his Trypho regards them as equally preposterous. A ‘man of men’ Christology implies rejection of both of these ideas. Justin shows no awareness of a Christology which accepts Jesus’ Messiahship and virgin birth but rejects his pre-existence. Hence this passage furnishes no evidence for proto-biblical unitarian Christology. The proponents of the ‘man of men’ Christology probably either rejected the birth narratives in Matthew and Luke, or were unaware of them. In neither case is it likely that they represented the dominant view of the mid-second century church.
    3. One of your sources says that we do not find Justin appealing to former writings on the subject, but only to his interpretation of the Scriptures. Yet Justin’s justification for opposing the ‘man of men’ Christology is, “we were enjoined by Christ himself to put no faith in human doctrines, but in those proclaimed by the blessed prophets and taught by himself.” This is a clear appeal to the scriptures as well as the Jesus tradition (for which Justin’s source is the written ‘memoirs of the apostles’, probably some form of our canonical Gospels). Justin clearly regards himself as bound by tradition on the fundamentals of his Christology. (Elsewhere, in 1 Apology 46, Justin refers to the pre-existence of Christ as something “we have been taught”.) It is therefore puzzling that your source could suggest Justin may have invented his Christology himself. It is also unclear which sources your source thought Justin ought to have appealed to, other than the Scriptures and the Jesus tradition.
    4. It is less than clear that Justin regards proponents of the ‘man of men’ Christology as fellow Christians in good standing. The reference to ‘those who have the same opinions of myself’ could refer to (a) all those who currently share Justin’s high Christology; or (b) all those who share Justin’s opinion that Jesus is the Christ (contra Trypho). In neither case is it a value judgment about those who hold the ‘man of men’ Christology. I’ve analysed the issue of Justin’s view of this matter in a blog post: http://blog.dianoigo.com/2014/08/justin-martyr-and-man-of-men_26.html . My own conclusion is that he viewed this group with considerable suspicion but was not prepared to classify them as outright heretics.

  3. [ca. 14:30] When did God [according to Justin Martyr] beget this “rational power”? Well, he never exactly says, but all the major interpreters have the impression that just it means that this happened when it was time to create. [1] So a finite time ago, when God came to have need for an intermediary to create the physical world [2], that’s the time in which the logos comes to be, that is as a god, as a second power, as a helper. And Justin says that he was “begotten by God’s will”. God had a choice about this. [2] This causing of the Son to exist was not forced somehow by God’s perfection, by God’s nature, as with some later trinity theories. [3] Rather the logos exists because God has willed, that is chosen that he should exist. So the logos is not eternally pre-existent, and no, the logos is not fully divine. The logos is not divine in the way the Father is divine. The Father doesn’t exist by the will or choice of anyone. But Jesus, according to Justin, does. This just isn’t the later doctrine of the mysterious, timeless generation of Son by Father, wherein the Father shares His divine nature or essence. As Justin says, Jesus is called Son, God and Lord not because he shares the divine nature or essence, but rather because he does God’s will and owes his existence to God’s will. [4] His existence and life, then, are expressions of God’s will. What Jesus says and does are guides to what God wants. Now on both these points Catholic apologists will point out that for Justin the term logos is used not only for the pre-human Jesus, who dates to just before creation, but seemingly also for God’s eternal reason or rationality: it’s a divine attribute. Now when the logos is generated is it just imagined (?) to be, somehow, a transition of this eternal attribute into something that lives and works alongside God? In a manner of speaking, yes. Justin was not concerned to have there be no time at which the logos did not exist. Justin, by various analogies, makes the point that when the logos, so to speak, comes out of God, nothing really has left God. God is just as he was before. So there is some kind of correspondence or mirroring between the eternal, unchanging logos of God –God’s rationality– and this “second god” that now comes to exist. Yes, there is a correspondence there. Yes, you may imagine that as the logos sort of going out of God, but also, at the same time, remaining within God. Some people will read Justin as straight up pulling the view that Jesus used to be a divine attribute, well he used to be only a divine attribute. Now he is also a person. I don’t really see the need to attribute that kind of nonsense to Justin. [5] We understand the claim that God is eternally rational, and we can understand that God, in a sense, expresses this rationality by bringing into existence a helper, also called the logos of God. I don’t think we have to attribute to him the view that a divine attribute becomes a divine person, which is to say, a god. [6] Does Justin put the pre-human Jesus on the Creator side, or on the creature side? Well, again he is not obsessed with that question as later Catholic became. At one point Trypho is allowed to say that God made or created Christ, and Justin doesn’t contradict him. [etc. etc. ca. 18:30]

    I am not entirely sure about the accuracy of my transcript of this section of the podcast, but I tried my best. I hope other commenters will find it useful, anyway.

    Here are some comments/questions, corresponding to the note marks
    interspersed in the transcript.

    [1] The very expression “when it was time to create” presupposes that
    time ticked, apart from creation: a very … Newtonian fallacy.

    [2] Did God need an “intermediary” for creation? Why? Only the Platonic
    God would not get (nay, would not even be capable of getting) his hands dirty with creation. Nothing scriptural, here.

    [3] This is an interesting expression: “some later trinity theories”. So
    there was a development, after all and Dale is caught implying that he doesn’t really believe that the “co-eternal, co-equal, tri-personal” doctrine
    of the Cappadocians came out of the blue.

    [4] Where, precisely, does Justin say that “Jesus is called Son, God and
    Lord … because he does God’s will and owes his existence to God’s will”?
    Anyway, if Justin really said that, it would be an idiocy, because it would apply also to all God’s faithful angels and prophets.

    [5] What Dale calls (for the umpteenth time …) “nonsense” is, in fact very similar to the Stoic doctrine of the logos prophorikos (“the uttered word”) vs logos endiathetos (“the word remaining within”) – BTW adopted also by Philo.

    [6] And why, pray tell, not? Especially bearing in mind that this is the
    most straightforward reading of the Prologue to the Gospel of John?

    1. Matt13weedhacker

      2nd Apology Chapter 6.3

      The Son Gk., ( ????????? ) “came into existence” [= Codex Claromontanus reading] at a temporal point in time = Gk., ( ??? ??? ????? ) “when at the beginning”.

      Both the Codex Regius Parisinus Graecus 450, or Paris, Bibliothèque Nationale, gr. 451, (= not available online yet), and the Codex Claromontanus, (a direct copy of the Regius), read Gk., ( ??? ).

      Gk., ( ??? ) = “when” or: “at the time when”.

      See Codex Claromontanus 82, later Mediomontanus, now British Library MS Add. 82951.

      Folio 152r
      http://www.bl.uk/manuscripts/Viewer.aspx?ref=add_ms_82951_f152r

    2. Matt13weedhacker

      There is more supporting evidence in the context, in Justin’s reasoning.

      Justin Martyr, reasoned that the Father cannot have a proper name. As he goes on to explain, this is, (according to his own personal opinion or philosophy). Why? Because He, (according to Justin’s logic), would have to have someone who is older than He is, in order for Him to be, (or have been), given such a name.

      Yet, in comparison, (both in the Bible and in Justin’s theology), the Son, does indeed have, and has been given a name.

      What are the obvious implications of this reasoning?

      Implications = Justin is effectively saying that:

      [1.] There is no person that is Gk., ( ??????????? ) older than the Father.

      [2.] This is because the Father is Gk., ( ???????? ???? ) translated either: “an un-generated (or begotten) Being” or perhaps: “by [reason of Him] being an un-generated [Person]”.

      [3.] Therefore, there was, and is, no prior existing person who could have caused or
      generated the Father’s life or existence, (let alone a name), i.e. He is not “generated” or “begotten” out of, from, or of someone else.

      [4.] Life only comes from, or is CREATED (of, from, out of, or by) pre-existing life, or a prior, (i.e. Gk., ??????????? “older”), living Person.

      Therefore, we must conclude that the Father is older than the Son in Justin’s reasoning.

      Because, (to Justin), the Son, (= implied and/or direct comparison), has been given a name.

      See the immediate context in 2nd Apol. 6.4(A), Gk., ( ?????? ) “Jesus”, 2nd Apol. 6.6(C), Gk., ( ??? ???????? ????? ??????? ) “of the name of Jesus Christ”.

      To Justin, the Son is Gk., ( ????????? ?????? ) “rightly called” such.

      Because the Son Gk., ( ????????? ) “began existence” or “came into existence” or “was created”, according to the Codex Claromontanus, (later Mediomontanus now British Library MS Add. 82951), reading.

      The Son came into existence at a temporal point in time Gk., ( ??? ??? ????? ) “when at the beginning”. Gk., ( ??? ) = “when” or: “at the time when”.

      JUSTIN MARTYR (circa. 110-165 C.E.): “…But for the Father of all, being Un-Born, there is no set name; for whoever has a name – has an OLDER person who – gave them the name. But the word “Father,” and “God,” and “Creator,” and “Lord,” and “Master,” are not names, but designations drawn from His beneficial acts. But His Son, the only one rightfully called “Son,” the Logos, existing [ = present tense ] with Him and being brought forth before the things made – ( when ) – ( He ) [ = the Father ] – had created and arranged all things through Him, was called “Christ” with reference to His being anointed and God having arranged{12} all things through Him. The name itself holds an unknown significance, just as the title “God” is not a name but a notion about a thing hard to describe implanted in the nature of men…” – (Chapter 6:3, 2nd Apology, Page 23-24, “The Second Apology of Justin Martyr: with Text and Translation,” By Kyle Pope, Ancient Road Publications, © 2001.)
      [FOOTNOTE 12]: Justin appears to suggest a two-fold etymology for the name Christ: 1. The word kechristhai meaning “to be annointed,” and (the unusual suggestion,) 2. The word kosmesai meaning “to have arranged.”

  4. Dale,

    at some point in the podcast (ca. 11:00) you say:

    … pre-existence is one thing, but eternal pre-existence is another, and being fully divine is yet another.

    As usual, what you don’t say is that you consider the notion of Trinity to entail, essentially, “being fully divine” for the “pre-existing son” (and the “holy spirit”).

    As usual, you have a blind spot for the divinity of Jesus being the consequence of his being the Incarnation of God’s eternal logos. No “personal pre-existence” attached.

    Your limits, your problems …

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